I really hope someone, with more time than I have, will do a good critical review of this lamentable Christianity Today article on Jesus’ cry, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” The whole piece is meandering all over the place, but he finally gets to his thesis on the third page. It’s really disheartening that anyone at CT thought this was a worthwhile piece of argument. He completely undermines the significance of Jesus’ cry — neutralizing the impact it does and should have on all readers.
I really do not want to see the author handle the garden at Gethsemane scene in the previous chapter of Mark: “My soul is very sorrowful, even to death” (14.34) and “remove this cup from me” (14.36). Maybe these also mean the exact opposite of what they say.
Or, maybe Paul was right that Jesus “became a curse for us” (Gal 3.13) and was “made to be sin on our behalf” (2 Cor 5.21).
dogmatics.wordpress.com 
“worst” spelling in a title ever!!
and eh so like .. what does it mean then?
Yes, that’s what I get for shooting out a post in a minute. Corrected now.
It means that Jesus experienced the abandonment of God as the full extent of his bearing the curse of man’s sin. Thus, it is not “a cry of vindication,” as Hsu argues. It is a painful cry of being forsaken — it is the sinner’s cry. That’s the whole point.
I agree the writer has a skewed take on things, but it seems to me that’s trying to fit too much into the text, more than we can get from Mark (that’s not to say I don’t believe in penal substitution). But I guess that’s a matter of how systematic your approach to theology is – I’m sure you are more than me.
Not sure this is what you had in mind but here.
The idea that Jesus was anticipating his deliverance when he cried that out is hardly a new one. With that said, the writer’s attempt to say “therefore Jesus wasn’t really all that upset” does violence to the text. Jesus was obviously in great distress and also perhaps anticipating his vindication.